Paper
– I (2012 Dec)
1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare (B) Communist and Commune
(C)
Communism and Communalism (D)
Communion and Common sense
2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of
communication to talk to the masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication (B) Group communication
(C)
Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication
3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication (B) Intrapersonal communication
(C)
Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following
is
(A) The Times of India (B) The Indian
Express
(C)
The Hindu (D)
The Deccan Herald
5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was
(A)
K.A. Abbas (B) Satyajit
Ray (C) B.R. Chopra (D) Dada Sahib Phalke
6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle
of
(A)
Infotainment (B) Edutainment (C) Entertainment (D) Power equation
7. The missing number in the series : 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?,
336, is
(A)
240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210
8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be
formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110
9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of
the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5.
The average of the whole group is
(A)
4 (B) 15/2 (C) 15/4 (D) 6
10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will
be represented by
(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR (C) MASRL (D) SAMLR
11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years
ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20
(B) 35, 15 (C) 38,
12 (D) 40, 10
12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (), C means divided by ()
and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A)
8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion– II and select the
right code given below :
Assertion–I : Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and
take away your wealth. But thieves can not go to heaven. So you should keep
your wealth in heaven.
Assertion–II : The difference of skincolour of beings is because of the
distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is
the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes :
(A)
Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the
assertion-II is not.
(C)
The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D)
Both the assertions are explanations of facts
14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some
men are not honest’ is contradicted ?
(A) All men are honest. (B) Some men
are honest.
(C)
No men are honest. (D) All of
the above.
15. A stipulative definition is
(A)
always true
(B) always false
(C)
sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to
replace the question mark.
Examiner
– Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor – ?
(A)
Customer (B) Path-finder (C) Perceiver (D) Disciple
17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is
taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed
to be true ?
I.
All obedient persons are students.
II.
All students are obedient.
III.
Some students are obedient.
IV.
Some students are not disobedient.
Codes :
(A)
I & II (B) II & III
(C) III & IV (D) II & IV
18. Choose the right code : A deductive argument claims that :
I.
The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in
the premises.
II.
The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III.
If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV.
If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes :
(A) I and II (B) I and III
(C)
II and III (D) All the above
On
the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions
from 19 to 24 :
Government Expenditures on Social
Services
|
(As percent of total expenditure)
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Sl. No. Items
|
2007-08
|
2008-09
|
2009-10
|
2010-11
|
|
|
Social Services
|
11.06
|
12.94
|
13.06
|
14.02
|
|
|
(a) Education, sports & youth affairs
|
4.02
|
4.04
|
3.96
|
4.46
|
|
|
(b) Health & family welfare
|
2.05
|
1.91
|
1.90
|
2.03
|
|
|
(c) Water supply, housing, etc
|
. 2.02
|
2.31
|
2.20
|
2.27
|
|
|
(d) Information & broadcasting
|
0.22
|
0.22
|
0.20
|
0.22
|
|
|
(e) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
|
0.36
|
0.35
|
0.41
|
0.63
|
|
|
(f) Labour and employment
|
0.27
|
0.27
|
0.22
|
0.25
|
|
|
(g) Social welfare & nutrition
|
0.82
|
0.72
|
0.79
|
1.06
|
|
|
(h) North-eastern areas
|
0.00
|
1.56
|
1.50
|
1.75
|
|
|
(i) Other social services
|
1.29
|
1.55
|
1.87
|
1.34
|
|
|
Total Government expenditure
|
100.00
|
100.00
|
100.00
|
100.00
|
100.00
|
19. How many activities in the social services are there where
the expenditure has been less than
5
percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09 ?
(A)
One (B) Three
(C)
Five (D) All the above
20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have
increased at the highest rate ?
(A)
2007-08 (B) 2008-09
(C)
2009-10 (D) 2010-11
21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in
terms of share of expenditures ?
(A)
North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting (D) Social welfare and nutrition
22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost
equal to the remaining three items in the given years ?
(A)
Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C)
Labour and employment (D) Social welfare
& nutrition
23. Which of the following items of social services has
registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to
2010-11 ?
(A)
Education, sports & youth affairs (B)
Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C)
Social welfare & nutrition (D) Overall social services
24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate
of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Labour and employment (B) Health
& family welfare
(C) Social
welfare & nutrition (D) Education, sports & youth affairs
25. ALU stands for
(A)
American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C)
Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a
circuit board called
(A)
Microprocessor (B) System Board
(C)
Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
27. Computer Virus is a
(A)
Hardware (B) Bacteria
(C) Software (D) None of these
28. Which one of the following is correct ?
(A)
(17)10 =
(17)16 (B) (17)10 = (17)8
(C)
(17)10 =
(10111)2 (D) (17)10 = (10001)2
29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is
_______.
(A)
.pdf (B) .doc (C) .docx
(D) .txt
30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download
e-mails to your computer.
(A)
TCP (B) FTP (C) SMTP (D) POP
31. Which of the following is a source of methane ?
(A) Wetlands (B) Foam Industry (C) Thermal Power Plants (D) Cement Industry
32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(A)
Lead (B) Mercury (C)
Cadmium (D) Zinc
33. Biomagnification means increase in the
(A) concentration of pollutants in
living organisms (B) number of species
(C)
size of living organisms
(D) biomass
34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A)
Climate change (B) Ozone
depletion (C) Hazardous waste (D) Biodiversity
35. The second most important source after fossil fuels
contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A)
Solar energy (B) Nuclear
energy (C) Hydropower (D)
Wind energy
36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on
Richter Scale implies
(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of
seismic waves.
(B)
a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C)
two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D)
two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.
37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development
Index ?
(A)
Literacy Rate (B)
Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio (D) Life Expectancy
38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after
(A)
the U.K . (B) the U.S.A. (C) Australia (D) Canada
39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about
the Attorney General of India ?
1.
The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High
Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2.
He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3.
He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha.
4.
He has a fixed tenure.
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 3 only
40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee
desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as
in official notings ?
1.
His Excellency 2.
Mahamahim 3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)
1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2
and 3
41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of
financial emergency ?
1.
State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2.
Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of
States.
3.
Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4.
Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
Select
the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A)
1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3
and 4 (C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer
from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(a)
Poverty Reduction Programme
(i) Mid-day Meals
(b)
Human Development Scheme
(ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c)
Social Assistance Scheme
(iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d)
Minimum Need Scheme
(iv) MNREGA
Codes :
(a)
(b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B)
(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv)
(iii) (ii) (i)
43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have
(A)
ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation only
(C)
opportunities to learn only (D) desired level of ability and motivation
44. Classroom communication must be
(A)
Teacher centric (B) Student centric (C) General centric (D) Textbook centric
45. The best method of teaching is to
(A)
impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C)
suggest good reference material (D) initiate a discussion and participate
in it
46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate
(A)
Argument (B) Information (C)
Ideas (D)
Controversy
47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A)
punishment in the class should be banned.
(B)
corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D)
children should be beaten with rods.
48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the
classroom, is termed as
(A)
Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication (D) Face-to-face communication
49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality
of a research journal ?
(A) Impact factor (B)
h-index (C) g-index (D) i10-index
50. Good ‘research ethics’ means
(A)
Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your
research.
(B) Assigning a particular research
problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C)
Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that
you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D)
Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one
journal.
51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on
probability ?
(A)
Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C)
Judgement sampling (D) Stratified sampling
52. Which one of the following references is written according
to American
Psychological
Association (APA) format ?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of
Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B)
Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C)
Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D)
Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw
Hill
53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence
:
1.
Identification of research problem
2.
Listing of research objectives
3.
Collection of data
4.
Methodology
5.
Data analysis
6.
Results and discussion
(A)
1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C)
2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D)
2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
54. Identify the incorrect statement :
(A)
A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for
further investigations.
(B)
A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C)
Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a
scientific theory.
Read the following passage carefully
and answer the questions (55
to 60)
:
The popular view of towns and cities in
developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits
and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation,
generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes,
lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality ? Given the
unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300
million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really
is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.
In
general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of
water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport.
By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided
with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China,
India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in
terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the
last decade of 20th century,
though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been
provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in
the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional
population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These
improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban
population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and
quality-oriented public management.
55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in
developing countries is
(A)
Positive (B) Negative (C) Neutral (D) Unspecified
56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in
developing countries, from 1950
to
2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million (B)
40 million (C) 50 million (D) 60 million
57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B)
How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C)
How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D)
How fast the environment has degraded.
58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator
of urban quality of life ?
(A) Tempo of urbanization (B) Provision
of basic services
(C)
Access to social amenities (D) All the above
59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A)
Extension of Knowledge (B)
Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning (D) Descriptive Statement
60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A)
The hazards of the urban life (B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C)
The awareness of human progress (D) The
limits to growth
Paper
– I
Note : This paper
contains Sixty (60) questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
Candidate is expected to answer
any Fifty (50) questions. In case more than 50 questions are
attempted, only the first 50 questions will be evaluated.
1. The University
which telecasts interaction educational programmes through its own channel is
(A) Osmania University
(B) University of Pune
(C) Annamalai University
(D)
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
2. Which of the
following skills are needed for present day teacher to adjust effectively with
the classroom teaching ?
1. Knowledge of technology
2. Use of technology in teaching
learning
3. Knowledge of students’ needs
4. Content mastery
(A) 1 & 3 (B) 2 & 3 (C) 2, 3 & 4 (D) 2 & 4
3. Who has signed
an MOU for Accreditation of Teacher Education Institutions in India ?
(A) NAAC and UGC (B) NCTE and NAAC
(C)
UGC and NCTE
(D)
NCTE and IGNOU
4. The primary duty
of the teacher is to
(A) raise the intellectual
standard of the students
(B) improve the physical standard
of the students
(C) help all round development of the students
(D) imbibe value system in the
students
5. Micro teaching
is more effective
(A) during the preparation for
teaching-practice
(B) during the teaching-practice
(C) after the teaching-practice
(D)
always
6. What quality the
students like the most in a teacher ?
(A) Idealist philosophy (B) Compassion
(C) Discipline (D)
Entertaining
7. A null hypothesis is
(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as
research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference
between the variables
8. The research
which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called
(A) Philosophical research (B)
Historical research
(C) Mythological research (D) Content analysis
9. Action research
is
(A) An applied research (B) A
research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C) A longitudinal research (D) Simulative research
10. The process not
needed in Experimental Researches is
(A) Observation (B) Manipulation
(C) Controlling (D) Content Analysis
11. Manipulation is
always a part of
(A) Historical research (B) Fundamental
research
(C) Descriptive research (D) Experimental
research
12. Which
correlation co-efficient best explains the relationship between creativity and
intelligence ?
(A) 1.00 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.3
Read the following passage and
answer the Question Nos. 13 to 18 :
The
decisive shift in British Policy really came about under mass pressure in the
autumn and winter of 1945 to 46 – the months which Perderel Moon while editing
Wavell’s Journal has perceptively described as ‘The Edge of a Volcano’. Very
foolishly, the British initially decided to hold public trials of several
hundreds of the 20,000 I.N.A. prisoners (as well as dismissing from service and
detaining without trial no less than 7,000). They compounded the folly by
holding the first trial in the Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945, and putting on
the dock together a Hindu, a Muslim and a Sikh (P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz,
Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon). Bhulabhai Desai, Tejbahadur Sapru and Nehru
appeared for the defence (the latter putting on his barrister’s gown after 25
years), and the Muslim League also joined the countrywide protest. On 20
November, an Intelligence Bureau note admitted that “there has seldom been a
matter which has attracted so much Indian public interest and, it is safe to
say, sympathy … this particular brand of sympathy cuts across communal
barriers.’ A journalist (B. Shiva Rao) visiting the Red Fort prisoners on the
same day reported that ‘There is not the slightest feeling among them of
Hindu and Muslim … A majority of the men now awaiting trial in the Red Fort is
Muslim. Some of these men are bitter that Mr. Jinnah is keeping alive a
controversy about Pakistan.’ The British became extremely nervous about the
I.N.A. spirit spreading to the Indian Army, and in January the Punjab Governor
reported that a Lahore reception for released I.N.A. prisoners had been
attended by Indian soldiers in uniform.
13. Which heading is
more appropriate to assign to the above passage ?
(A) Wavell’s Journal
(B) Role of Muslim League
(C) I.N.A. Trials (D) Red Fort
Prisoners
14. The trial of
P.K. Sehgal, Shah Nawaz and Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon symbolises
(A) communal harmony
(B) threat to all religious
persons
(C) threat to persons fighting for the freedom
(D) British reaction against the
natives
15. I.N.A. stands
for
(A) Indian National Assembly (B) Indian
National Association
(C) Inter-national
Association
(D) Indian National Army
16. ‘There has
seldom been a matter which has attracted so much Indian Public Interest
and, it is safe to say, sympathy
… this particular brand of sympathy cuts across
communal barriers.’
Who sympathises to whom and
against whom ?
(A) Muslims sympathised with Shah Nawaz against the British
(B) Hindus sympathised with P.K.
Sehgal against the British
(C) Sikhs sympathised with
Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon against the British
(D) Indians sympathised with the persons who were to be trialled
17. The majority of
people waiting for trial outside the Red Fort and criticising Jinnah were the
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims
(C) Sikhs (D) Hindus and Muslims
both
18. The sympathy of
Indian soldiers in uniform with the released I.N.A. prisoners at Lahore
indicates
(A) Feeling of Nationalism and Fraternity
(B) Rebellious nature of Indian
soldiers
(C) Simply to participate in the
reception party
(D) None of the above
19. The country
which has the distinction of having the two largest circulated newspapers in
the world is
(A) Great Britain (B) The United States (C) Japan (D) China
20. The
chronological order of non-verbal communication is
(A) Signs, symbols, codes,
colours
(B) Symbols, codes, signs,
colours
(C) Colours, signs, codes,
symbols
(D) Codes, colours, symbols,
signs
21. Which of the
following statements is not connected with communication ?
(A) Medium is the message.
(B) The world is an electronic
cocoon.
(C) Information is power.
(D) Telepathy is technological.
22. Communication
becomes circular when
(A) the decoder becomes an encoder
(B) the feedback is absent
(C) the source is credible
(D) the channel is clear
23. The site that
played a major role during the terrorist attack on Mumbai (26/11) in 2008
was
(A) Orkut (B)
Facebook
(C) Amazon.com (D) Twitter
24. Assertion
(A) : For
an effective classroom communication at times it is desirable to use the
projection technology.
Reason (R) : Using the
projection technology facilitates extensive coverage of course contents.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true,
but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is
false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is
true.
25. January 1, 1995
was a Sunday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 1996 ?
(A) Sunday (B) Monday (C) Wednesday (D) Saturday
26. When an error of
1% is made in the length and breadth of a rectangle, the percentage
error (%) in the area of a
rectangle will be
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C)
2 (D) 4
27. The next number
in the series 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ? will be
(A) 74 (B) 75 (C) 76 (D) None of the above
28. There are 10
true-false questions in an examination. Then these questions can be
answered in
(A)
20 ways (B) 100 ways (C) 240 ways (D) 1024 ways
29. What will be the
next term in the following ?
DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
(A) AKPO (B) ABYZ (C) JIRQ (D) LMRS
30. Three
individuals X, Y, Z hired a car on a sharing basis and paid Rs. 1,040. They
used
it for 7, 8, 11 hours,
respectively. What are the charges paid by Y ?
(A) Rs. 290 (B)
Rs. 320 (C) Rs.
360 (D) Rs. 440
31. Deductive
argument involves
(A) sufficient evidence (B) critical thinking
(C) seeing logical relations (D) repeated observation
32. Inductive
reasoning is based on or presupposes
(A)
uniformity of nature (B) God created the world
(C) unity of nature (D) laws of nature
33. To be critical,
thinking must be
(A) practical (B) socially relevant
(C) individually satisfying (D) analytical
34. Which of the
following is an analogous statement ?
(A) Man is like God (B)
God is great
(C) Gandhiji is the Father of the
Nation (D) Man is a rational being.
37. After 1600 A.D.,
the demography of London was characterised by
(A) high deathrates and
birthrates
(B) three major outbreaks of
disease, the last of which was responsible for the death of over 80,000 people
(C) a rise in population through
natural growth
(D)
population stability
38. Examples of the
economic hegemony of London in the seventeenth century include
(A) the movement of the Court
permanently to the capital
(B) 9/10th of England’s overseas
trade passing through its docks
(C) a large variety of secondary
industries growing up around the port of London.
(D) London becoming England’s
major intellectual and cultural centre at the time of Defoe and Hogarth.
39. Which one of the
following was not the cause of high rate of death among the people of London ?
(A) Increasing low fertility
among people
(B) Absence of diseases
(C) Family planning regulations
of the State
(D)
Migration of population
40. What made London
a great leisure centre ?
(A) Growth of ancillary industries.
(B) Concentration of wealth among
people who were earlier poor.
(C) Increased rate of mortality.
(D) Due to increase in immigrant
population.
41. Which of the
following sources of data is not based on primary data collection ?
(A) Census of India (B) National
Sample Survey
(C) Statistical Abstracts of India (D) National Family Health Survey
42. Which of the
four data sets have more dispersion ?
(A) 88 91
90 92 89 91
(B) 0 1
1 0 –1 –2
(C) 3 5
2 4 1 5
(D) 0 5 8 10 –2 –8
43. Which of the
following is not related to information security on the Internet ?
(A) Data Encryption (B) Water marking
(C) Data Hiding (D)
Information Retrieval
44. Which is the
largest unit of storage among the following ?
(A) Terabyte (B) Megabyte (C) Kilobyte (D) Gigabyte
45. bit stands for
(A) binary information term (B) binary digit
(C) binary tree
(D) Bivariate Theory
46. Which one of the
following is not a linear data structure ?
(A) Array (B) Binary Tree
(C) Queue (D) Stack
47. Which one of the
following is not a network device ?
(A) Router (B) Switch (C) Hub (D) CPU
48. A compiler is
used to convert the following to object code which can be executed
(A) High-level language (B) Low-level language
(C) Assembly language (D) Natural language
49. The great Indian
Bustard bird is found in
(A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan (B) Coastal regions of India
(C) Malabar Coast (D)
Delta regions
50. The Sagarmanthan
National Park has been established to preserve the eco-system of which mountain
peak ?
(A) Kanchenjunga (B) Mount Everest
(C) Annapurna (D) Dhaulavira
51. Maximum soot is
released from
(A) Petrol vehicles (B)
CNG vehicles
(C) Diesel vehicles (D) Thermal Power Plants
52. Surface Ozone is
produced from
(A) Transport sector (B) Cement plants
(C) Textile industry
(D) Chemical industry
53. Which one of the
following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically ?
(A) Solar
(B) Wind
(C) Geo-thermal (D) Ocean Thermal Energy
Conversion (OTEC)
54. The most
recurring natural hazard in India is
(A) Earthquakes (B) Floods (C) Landslides (D) Volcanoes
55. The
recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500
Universities is to
(A) create more teaching jobs
(B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education
(C) replace or substitute the
privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions
(D) enable increased movement of
students from rural areas to urban areas
56. According to
Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall
be transacted in
(A) English only (B) Hindi only
(C) English and Hindi both (D) All
the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
57. Which of the
following is more interactive and student centric ?
(A) Seminar (B)
Workshop
(C) Lecture (D) Group Discussion
58. The Parliament
in India is composed of
(A)
Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha &
Vice President
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha &
President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with
their Secretariats
59. The enrolment in
higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and
by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
(A) 50% of formal system
(B) 25% of formal system
(C) 10% of the formal system
(D)
Distance education system’s contribution is not taken into account while
considering the figures of enrolment in higher education
60. Assertion
(A) :
The U.G.C. Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality
of teachers.
Reason (R) : University and
college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher courses.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A).
(C) (A) is correct and (R) is
false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
1. A research paper
is a brief report of research work based on
(A) Primary Data only (B)
Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary
Data (D) None of the
above
2. Newton gave
three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as
(A) Descriptive Research (B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research (D) Applied
Research
3. A group of
experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a
syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as
(A) Seminar (B) Workshop (C)
Conference (D) Symposium
4. In the process
of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
(A) Statement of Objectives (B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research
Tools (D) Collection of Data
11. Public
communication tends to occur within a more
(A) complex structure (B) political structure
(C) convenient structure (D) formal structure
12. Transforming
thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as
(A) channelization (B) mediation (C) encoding (D) decoding
13. Effective
communication needs a supportive
(A) economic environment (B) political environment
(C) social environment (D) multi-cultural
environment
14. A major barrier
in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an
individual’s
(A) personality (B) expectation (C) social status (D) coding ability
15. When
communicated, institutionalized stereotypes become
(A) myths (B) reasons (C) experiences (D)
convictions
16. In mass
communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s
(A) competence (B) pre-disposition (C) receptivity (D) ethnicity
17. Determine the
relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR :
DENOMINATOR and then select the
pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship :
(A) fraction : decimal (B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom (D) dividend :
divisor
18. Find the wrong
number in the sequence
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130 (B) 142 (C) 153 (D) 165
19. If HOBBY is
coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then
BOBBY is coded as
(A) BOBY (B) COBY (C)
DOBY (D) OOBY
20. The letters in
the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship,
make the right choice for the second set :
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?
(A) 10/8 (B) 10/18 (C) 11/19 (D) 10/19
21. If A = 5, B = 6,
C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for ?
17, 19, 20, 9, 8
(A) Plane (B) Moped (C) Motor (D) Tonga
22. The price of oil
is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio
between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 (C)
1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6
23. How many 8’s are
there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately
followed by 3 ?
5
8 3 7
5 8 6
3 8 5
4 5 8
4 7 6
5 5 8
3 5 8
7 5 8
2 8 5
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 3
24. If a rectangle
were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a
square, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle (B)
Circle (C)
Point (D) Triangle
25. Which one of the
following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different
crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India ?
(A) Pie diagram (B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) Isopleth technique (D) Dot method
26. Which one of the
following does not come under the methods of data classification ?
(A) Qualitative (B) Normative (C) Spatial (D)
Quantitative
27. Which one of the
following is not a source of data ?
(A) Administrative records
(B) Population census (C)
GIS (D) Sample survey
28. If the statement
‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement
are/is true ?
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) Some men are not cruel.
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) only
29. The octal number
system consists of the following symbols :
(A) 0 – 7 (B) 0 – 9 (C) 0 – 9, A – F (D)
None of the above
30. The binary
equivalent of (–19)10
in
signed magnitude system is
(A) 11101100 (B) 11101101 (C)
10010011 (D) None of these
31. DNS in internet
technology stands for
(A) Dynamic Name System (B) Domain Name System
(C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these
32. HTML stands for
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) Hyper Text Manipulation
Language
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links
(D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links
33. Which of the
following is type of LAN ?
(A) Ethernet (B) Token Ring (C) FDDI (D) All of the above
34. Which of the
following statements is true ?
(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some
operating system.
(C) COS is smart card operating
system.
(D) The communication between
reader and card is in full duplex mode.
35. The Ganga Action
Plan was initiated during the year
(A) 1986 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1992
36. Identify the
correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in
India :
(A) Thermal > nuclear >
hydro > wind
(B) Thermal > hydro >
nuclear > wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind
(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind
> thermal
37. Chromium as a
contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes
(A) Skeletal damage
(B) Gastrointestinal problem
(C) Dermal and nervous problems
(D) Liver/Kidney problems
38. The main
precursors of winter smog are
(A) N2O and
hydrocarbons (B) NOx and hydrocarbons
(C) SO2 and hydrocarbons (D) SO2 and ozone
39. Flash floods are
caused when
(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable
vertical wind shear
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(C) the atmosphere is
convectively unstable with no vertical windshear
(D) winds are catabatic
40. In mega cities
of India, the dominant source of air pollution is
(A) transport sector
(B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste (D) commercial sector
41. The first Open
University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Delhi (C) Himachal
Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
42. Most of the
Universities in India are funded by
(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
43. Which of the
following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management
education in India ?
(A) NCTE (B) MCI (C) AICTE (D)
CSIR
44. Consider the
following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural
justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice
denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of
being heard must be given.
45. The President of
India is
(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government (D) None of the above
46. Who among the
following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public
Service Commission
(D) Governor
of a State
Questions 50 to 52 are
based on the following data : Measurements of some variable X were made at an
interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as
follows :
X : 60,
62, 65, 64,
63, 61, 66,
65, 70, 68
63,
62, 64, 69, 65,
64, 66, 67,
66, 64
50. The value of X,
which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 69 (B) 68 (C) 67 (D) 66
51. The value of X,
which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 63 (B) 62 (C) 61 (D) 60
52. The value of X,
which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 66 (B) 65 (C) 64 (D) 63
53. For maintaining
an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
(A) Allow students to do what
they like. (B) Deal with the
students strictly.
(C) Give the students some problem
to solve. (D) Deal with them politely and firmly.
54. An effective
teaching aid is one which
(A) is colourful and good
looking (B) activates all faculties
(C) is visible to all
students (D) easy
to prepare and use
55. Those teachers
are popular among students who
(A) develop intimacy with them (B) help them solve their problems
(C) award good grades (D) take classes on extra tuition fee
56. The essence of
an effective classroom environment is
(A) a variety of teaching
aids (B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) pin-drop silence (D) strict discipline
57. On the first day
of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he
should
(A) ask them to meet after the
class (B) tell them about himself in brief
(C) ignore the demand and start
teaching (D) scold the student for
this unwanted demand
58. Moral values can
be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher
(A) frequently talks about
values (B) himself practices them
(C) tells stories of great persons (D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
59. The essential
qualities of a researcher are
(A) spirit of free enquiry (B)
reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing
of knowledge (D) all the above
60. Research is
conducted to
I. Generate new knowledge II. Not to develop a theory
III. Obtain research degree IV. Reinterpret existing
knowledge
Which of the above are correct ?
(A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV (C) II, I & III (D) I,
III & IV
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