library science: UGC General Paper 2013 with Answer

PAPER-I December 2013

1. Which is the main objective of research ?

(A) To review the literature

(B) To summarize what is already known

(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

2. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size

(B) increase in sample size

(D) process of analysis

3. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research

(B) applied research

(D) historical research

4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience

(B) Active audience

(D) Negative audience

5. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration

(B) Institutionalisation

(D) Discourse

6. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions (B) Perceptions (C) Consumptions (D) Creations

7. In communication, myths have power, but are

(A) uncultural.

(B) insignificant.

(C) imprecise.

(D) unpreferred.

8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar

(B) API

(C) Hindustan Samachar

(D) Samachar Bharati

9. Organisational communication can also be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication.

(B) inter-personal communication.

(C) group communication.

(D) mass communication.

10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called

(A) Contradictory

(B) Contrary

(D) Sub-alternation

11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?

(A) Archana

(B) Bulbul

(C) Ananya

(D) Krishna

12. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true

(B) Always false

(D) Neither true nor false

13. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument

(B) Inductive argument

(C) Deductive argument

(D) Analogical argument

14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is. What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?

(A) Deductive (B) Astrological (C) Analogical (D) Mathematical

15. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn. Premises :

(i) All saints are religious. (major)

(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)

Codes :

(A) All saints are honest.

(B) Some saints are honest.

(C) Some honest persons are religious.

(D) All religious persons are honest.

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully

and answer questions from 16 to 19 based on this table.

Number of Foreign Tourist Region Arrivals 2007 2008 2009

Western Europe 1686083 1799525 1610086

North America 1007276 1027297 1024469

South Asia 982428 1051846 982633

South East Asia 303475 332925 348495

East Asia 352037 355230 318292

West Asia 171661 215542 201110

Total FTAs in India 5081504 5282603 5108579

16. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(D) South East Asia

17. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(D) West Asia

18. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) South East Asia

(D) West Asia

19. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(C) South Asia

(D) East Asia

20. The post-industrial society is designated as

(A) Information society

(B) Technology society

(D) Non-agricultural society

21. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for

(A) Commercial communication

(B) Military purposes

(D) Political campaigns

22. Internal communication within institutions is done through

(A) LAN

(B) WAN

(D) MMS

23. Virtual reality provides

(A) Sharp pictures

(B) Individual audio

(C) Participatory experience

(D) Preview of new films

24. The first virtual university of India came up in

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Tamil Nadu

25. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below :

(i) Limits to Growth

(ii) Silent Spring

(iii) Our Common Future

(iv) Resourceful Earth

Codes :

(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

26. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification ?

(A) Africa

(B) Asia

(D) North America

27. “Women are closer to nature than men.” What kind of perspective is this ?

(A) Realist (B) Essentialist (C) Feminist (D) Deep ecology

28. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests ?

(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.

(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.

(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

29. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man environment interaction is one of the following :

(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach

(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach

(D) Watershed Development Approach

30. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is

(A) Thermal power sector

(B) Transport sector

(D) Domestic sector

31. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of

(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen (C) LPG (D) CNG

32. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?

(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)

(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

33. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council ?

1. It is an autonomous institution.

2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.

3. It is located in Delhi.

4. It has regional offices.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2

34. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its

(A) Advisory Jurisdiction

(B) Appellate Jurisdiction

(C) Original Jurisdiction

(D) Writ Jurisdiction

35. Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. There are seven Union Territories in India.

2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies

3. One Union Territory has a High Court.

4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?

1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.

2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.

3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of ` 25,000/-

4. It can punish an errant officer.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2, 3 and 4

37. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?

(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)

(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)

(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

38. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of

CHILDREN will be

(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP

39. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is ` 7/- whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-. If the person has ` 38, the number of apples he can buy is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D)4

40. A man pointing to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. The lady is related to the man as

(A) Mother’s sister

(B) Grand mother

(D) Sister of Father-in-law

41. In this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8

42. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is

(A) 85 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 65

43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as

Sunita. The present age of Anil is

(A) 6 years

(B) 8 years

(C) 12 years

(D) 16 years

44. Which of the following is a social network ?

(A) amazon.com

(B) eBay

(D) Twitter

45. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as

(A) Universe

(B) Inference

(D) Statistics

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :

Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand,

India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.

Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps

overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed

(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.

(B) after training the specialists in the field.

(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.

47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of

(A) increasing number of members to 126.

(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.

(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.

48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be

(A) Financial support from the Government of India.

(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.

(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation.

(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.

49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to

(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent

50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?

(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.

(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.

(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.

(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.

Choose correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)

51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is

(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.

(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should

(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.

(B) punish those causing disturbance.

(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.

(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.

53. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.

(B) Teacher’s honesty and commitment.

(C) Teacher’s making students learn and understand.

(D) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence.

54. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Acquisition of skills

(B) Modification of behaviour

(D) Inculcation of knowledge

55. Arrange the following teaching process in order :

(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one

(ii) Evaluation

(iii) Re-teaching

(iv) Formulating instructional objectives

(v) Presentation of instructional materials

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

56. CIET stands for

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Education Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

57. Teacher’s role at higher education level is to

(A) provide information to students.

(B) promote self learning in students.

(D) help students to solve their problems.

58. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by

(A) German Social Scientists

(B) American Philosophers

(D) Italian Political Analysts

59. The sequential operations in scientific research are

(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation

(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations

(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.

60. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation

(B) Theorisation

(D) Randomisation

PAPER-I September 2013

Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.

• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.

• In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will

be evaluated.

1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%.

Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16 ?

(A) ~ 80 years (B) ~ 40 years

2. Telephone is an example of

(A) linear communication

(B) non-linear communication

(D) mechanised

3. Means of grapevine communication are

(A) formal (B) informal

4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by

(A) ILO (B) ITU (C) UNDP (D) UNESCO

5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with

(A) reality (B) falsity (C) negativity (D) passivity

6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as

(A) non-pervasive treasure

(B) limited judgement

(D) cultural capital

7. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective (B) affective (C) cognitive (D) non-selective

8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is

(A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 21

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is

(A) 38 (B) 42 (C) 52 (D) 24

10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is

(A) C (B) D (C) A (D) F

11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is

(A) 238 (B) 432 (C) 542 (D) 320

12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid ` 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid ` 204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is

(A) 236 (B) 240 (C) 248 (D) 256

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be

(A) QRUWK (B) RQWUK

14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?

(A) Yadav (B) Arjun (C) Rajesh (D) Kamal

15. A deductive argument can not be valid :

(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.

(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.

(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.

16. An analogical argument is strengthened by

(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.

(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.

(D) None of the above.

17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?

(A) Contrary

(B) Sub-contrary

(D) Contradictory

18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.

(A) Garments, cloth and shirts

(B) Cloth, garments and shirts

(D) Garments, shirts and cloth

19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?

(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.

(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.

(D) None of the above.

In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer

Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)

Year Coal & Lignite Crude Petroleum Natural Gas Electricity (Hydro & Nuclear) Total

2006-07 7459 1423 1223 4763 14,868

2007-08 7926 1429 1248 4944 15,547

2008-09 8476 1403 1265 5133 16,277

2009-10 9137 1411 1830 4511 16,889

2010-11 9207 1579 2012 5059 17,857

20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?

21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(D) Total production of energy

22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity

23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called

(A) net protocol (B) netiquette

25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as

(A) Net ads

(B) Internet commercials

(C) Webmercials

(D) Viral advertisements

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term

(A) Internet society

(B) Electronic society

(C) Network society

(D) Telematic society

27. GIF stands for

(A) Global Information Format

(B) Graphics Information Format

(D) Graphics Interchange Format

28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?

(A) IBM AIX

(B) Linux

(D) Firefox

29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?

1. Punjabi University, Patiala

2. Osmania University, Hyderabad

3. Kashmir University, Srinagar

4. St. Stephens College, Delhi

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 2 only (D) 4 only

30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory

Council (NAC) ?

1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.

2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.

4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional

Amendment Act (1992) ?

1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.

2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.

4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4

32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?

(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram

(B) Assam and Nagaland

(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?

1. Birth

2. Descent

3. Naturalisation

4. Incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4

34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?

1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.

2. It serves as an advisory body.

3. It is called upon to advise the

Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled

Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.

4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :

I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity.

Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.

In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.

35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?

(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee

(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year

(D) Women’s Organizations

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?

Choose the answer from codes given below :

(i) Representatives from different political parties.

(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.

(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.

(iv) None of the above.

Codes :

(A) (i), (iii) (B) (i), (ii)

37. Aruna earned respect because of

(A) she identified with the leftists

(B) she did not associate with any political party

(D) she identified with women’s organizations

38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?

(A) Women Organizations (B) Leftists

39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from

(A) 1985 – 2002 (B) 1998 – 2000

40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were

(A) Role of media (B) Economic justice

41. A good teacher must be

(A) resourceful and autocratic

(B) resourceful and participative

(D) resourceful and dominant

42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?

(A) Lecture method

(B) Discussion method

(C) Demonstration method

(D) Question-Answer method

43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is

(A) Circular

(B) Reciprocal

(D) Influential

44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ?

(A) Placement evaluation

(B) Formative evaluation

(D) Summative

45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?

(A) Macro teaching

(B) Team teaching

(D) Micro teaching

46. CLASS stands for

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools

(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools

(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools

(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools

47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?

(A) Single group experiment

(B) Residual group experiment

(D) Rational group experiment

48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?

(A) t-test

(B) Sign test

(D) Run test

49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.

Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions. Find the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :

(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings

(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings

(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection

51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in

(A) Basic Science

(B) Applied Science

(D) Literature

52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?

(A) Univariate analysis

(B) Factor analysis

(D) SWOT analysis

53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as

(A) antecedent variable

(B) precedent variable

(D) control variable

54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Sampling

(D) Quota Sampling

55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing

(A) 20,000 MW of wind power

(B) 25,000 MW of wind power

(C) 20,000 MW of solar power

(D) 10,000 MW of solar power

56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?

(A) Manas

(B) Kanchenjunga

(D) Greater Nicobar

57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?

(A) Agriculture

(B) Hydroelectric power generation

(D) Urbanisation

58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I

(Biosphere Reserve) List – II (Area of Location)

a. Nilgiri i. Deccan Peninsula

b. Manas ii. Chhattisgarh

c. Similipal iii. Eastern Himalaya

d. Achankmar- Amarkantak iv. Western Ghat

Codes :

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(D) iv iii i ii

59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?

(A) Mexico (B) Brazil

60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide ?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(C) USA

(D) India

PAPER-I june 2013

Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.

• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.

• In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.

1. Which one of the following references

is written as per Modern Language

Association (MLA) format ?

(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

2. A workshop is

(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.

(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.

(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

3. A working hypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.

(B) not required to be tested.

(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.

(D) a scientific theory

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-

Munavvara). Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the griefstricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the

Agra fort were constructed concurrently. Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

4. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is

(A) Burhanpur (B) Makrana (C) Amber (D) Jaipur

5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan (B) Tourists

6. Point out the true statement from the following :

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.

(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.

(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.

(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.

7. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known

(A) Mumtazabad (B) Mumtaz Mahal

8. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period

(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D. (B) 1630 – 1643 A.D.

(C) 1632 – 1643 A.D. (D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.

9. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as

(A) Farman (B) Sale Deed

10. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order ?

(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message

(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect

(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect

(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

11. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by

(A) Dr. Annie Besant

(B) James Augustus Hicky

(D) A.O. Hume

12. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister

(A) Rajeev Gandhi

(B) Narasimha Rao

(C) Indira Gandhi

(D) Deve Gowda

13. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as

(A) Entertainment

(B) Interactive communication

(D) Communitarian

14. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment

(B) Edutainment

(D) Enlightenment

15. ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.

(A) Sympathy

(B) Empathy

(D) Antipathy

16. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by

(A) UJHFS (B) UHJSF (C) JHUSF (D) HUJSF

17. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

18. The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is

(A) 110 (B) 270 (C) 105 (D) 210

19. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at

6th position is

(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 33 (D) 36

20. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is

(A) 30 (B) 85 2(C) 170 3 (D) 110

21. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by

(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50%

22. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true. Choose the correct code given below :

(i) All men are honest.

(ii) No men are honest.

(iii) Some men are not honest.

(iv) All men are dishonest.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)

23. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark. Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?

(A) Intelligence (B) Marks (C) Lessons (D) Wisdom

24. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T ?

(A) Wife

(B) Sister-in-law

(D) Daughter-in-law

25. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called

(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive (C) Stipulative (D) Precisions

26. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?

Statements :

(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.

(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.

(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.

(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

27. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A) unity in human nature

(B) integrity in human nature

(C) uniformity in human nature

(D) harmony in human nature

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 28 to 33 :

Area under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh hectares)

Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total Horticulture

Area

2005-06 53 72 1 187

2006-07 56 75 1 194

2007-08 58 78 2 202

2008-09 61 79 2 207

2009-10 63 79 2 209

28. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture ?

(A) 2005–06 & 2006–07

(B) 2006–07 & 2008–09

(D) 2006–07 & 2007–08

29. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively :

(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent

(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent

(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent

30. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers

(D) Total horticulture

31. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(D) Total horticulture

32. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?

(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent (C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent

33. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase ?

34. ‘www’ stands for

(A) work with web

(B) word wide web

(C) world wide web

(D) worth while web

35. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into

(A) Clusters

(B) Sectors

(D) Heads

36. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an

(A) Compiler

(B) Simulator

(D) Interpreter

37. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes

(B) 1024 Kilobytes

(D) 1024 Bytes

38. A Compiler is a software which converts

(A) characters to bits

(B) high level language to machine language

(D) words to bits

39. Virtual memory is

(A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.

(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.

(D) a type of memory used in super Computers

40. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is in the context of

(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.

(B) tragic conditions of poor people.

(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.

(D) climate change.

41. Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion

(B) Hazardous waste

(C) Climate change

(D) Nuclear energy

42. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant ?

(A) Transport sector

(B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning

(D) Fertilizers

43. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of

(A) Oxides of sulphur

(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons

(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

44. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans ?

(A) Earthquakes

(B) Forest fires

(D) Droughts and Floods

45. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around

(A) 2-3% (B) 22-25% (C) 10-12% (D) < 1%

46. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved ?

(A) OBC students

(B) SC students

(D) Woman students

47. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC) ?

(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.

(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.

(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.

48. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and

(II) : Statement : Should India switch over to a two party system ?

Arguments : (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.

(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

49. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and

(II) : Statement : Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections ?

Arguments : (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.

(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the

Supreme Court of India ?

1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.

2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.

4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4

51. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to

(A) The President

(B) The Vice-President

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Cabinet Ministers

52. The black-board can be utilised best by a teacher for

(A) putting the matter of teaching in black and white

(B) making the students attentive

(C) writing the important and notable points

(D) highlighting the teacher himself

53. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is

(A) self study

(B) face-to-face learning

(C) e-learning

(D) blended learning

54. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they

(A) can teach children better than men.

(B) know basic content better than men.

(D) can deal with children with love and affection.

55. Which one is the highest order of learning ?

(A) Chain learning

(B) Problem-solving learning

(D) Conditioned-reflex learning

56. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he

(A) has control over students.

(B) commands respect from students.

(D) is very close to higher authorities.

57. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should

A) use diagrams in teaching.

(B) speak more and more in the class.

(C) use teaching aids in the class.

(D) not speak too much in the class.

(58. A research paper is

(A) a compilation of information on a topic.

(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.

(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.

(D) can be published in more than one journal.

59. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’ ?

(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.

(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.

(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.

60. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability ?

(A) Simple Random Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling (C) Quota Sampling

(D) Cluster Sampling

library science

Wednesday 2 July 2014

UGC General Paper 2013 with Answer

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